Current Affairs

MCQ 1

1. Mt. Everest is also called Godwin Austen
2. Mt. Makalu is the 3rd highest peak in india after K2 & Kangchenjunga

• Choose correct

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Both

(D) None

Ministry of Defence

• Press Release on Naik Narayan Singh Part of Indian Army Expedition to MT Makalu
• It is informed that the 18 member Indian Army Mountaineering Expedition team to Mt Makalu (8485m) had successfully scaled the peak on 16 May 2019. While descending from the summit point to Camp IV (first camp during the descent), one of the team member Naik Narayan Singh died.
• Naik Narayan Singh has been a keen mountaineer and in the past had taken part in other mountaineering expeditions. Last year he had successfully summited Mt Kamet. He had joined the Army in 2002 and hailed from Pithoragarh, Uttarakhand. He is survived by his wife and three young children. A sincere and brave soldier he will be missed by all.
• Mt Makalu is considered amongst the most dangerous and challenging peaks to summit. Indian Army had undertaken this mountaineering expedition in furtherance of the objective of summiting challenging peaks above 8000m.

MCQ 2

• Many times in the govt schemes we hear a abbreviation as PAT the full form is

1. Popular auditing technique
2. Performance Audit Technique
3. Perform Achieve Trade
4. Performance associated technology

• In line with the energy conservation and efficiency policies of the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) under the Ministry of Power,launched the Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) scheme under the National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency (NMEEE).
• The launch of PAT scheme added another feather in the cap of BEE , along with other ongoing popular schemes. The Government of India notified the targets under the Energy Conservation Act, 2001 for 478 industrial units in India on 30th March, 2012. These targets are to be achieved by the units up to 2014-15.
• The Ministry of Power and the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) have been in the vanguard of promoting the efficient use of energy and its conservation. This is further supplemented by the National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency (NMEEE) which is one of the missions under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC). The PAT Mechanism is one of the initiatives under NMEEE programme. It is a market based mechanism to further accelerate as well as incentivize energy efficiency in the large energy-intensive industries. The scheme provides the option to trade any additional certified energy savings with other designated consumers to comply with the Specific Energy Consumption reduction targets. The Energy Savings Certificates (ESCerts) so issued will be tradable on special trading platforms to be created in the two power exchanges -- Indian Energy Exchange and Power Exchange India.

MCQ 3

• Regarding New Delhi International Arbitration Centre (NDIAC)

1. The New Delhi International Arbitration Centre Ordinance, 2019 was promulgated on March 2, 2019. It seeks to establish an autonomous and independent institution for better management of arbitration in India
2. The accounts of the NDIAC will be audited and certified by the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.

• Choose correct

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Both

(D) None

• The New Delhi International Arbitration Centre Ordinance, 2019 was promulgated on March 2, 2019. It seeks to establish an autonomous and independent institution for better management of arbitration in India. Previously, a similar Bill was passed by Lok Sabha on January 4, 2019. However, the Bill will lapse with the dissolution of the 16th Lok Sabha. Key features of the Ordinance include:
• New Delhi International Arbitration Centre (NDIAC): The Ordinance seeks to provide for the establishment of the NDIAC to conduct arbitration, mediation, and conciliation proceedings. It declares the NDIAC as an institution of national importance.
• International Centre for Alternative Dispute Resolution (ICADR): The ICADR is a registered society to promote the resolution of disputes through alternative dispute resolution methods (such as arbitration and mediation). The Ordinance seeks to transfer the existing ICADR to the central government. Upon notification by the central government, all the rights, title, and interest in the ICADR will be transferred to the NDIAC.
• Composition: The NDIAC will consist of seven members including: (i) a Chairperson who has been a Judge of the Supreme Court or a High Court, or an eminent person with special knowledge and experience in the conduct or administration of arbitration, (ii) two eminent persons having substantial knowledge and experience in institutional arbitration, (iii) three ex-officio members, including a nominee from the Ministry of Finance and a Chief Executive Officer (responsible for the day-to-day administration of the NDIAC), and (iv) a representative from a recognised body of commerce and industry, appointed as a part-time member, on a rotational basis.
• Term and superannuation: The members of NDIAC will hold office for three years and will be eligible for re-appointment. The retirement age for the Chairperson is 70 years and other members is 67 years.
• Objectives and functions of the NDIAC: The key objectives of the NDIAC include (i) promoting research, providing training and organising conferences and seminars in alternative dispute resolution matters, (ii) providing facilities and administrative assistance for the conduct of arbitration, mediation and conciliation proceedings, and (iii) maintaining a panel of accredited arbitrators, mediators and conciliators.
• Key functions of the NDIAC will include: (i) facilitating conduct of arbitration and conciliation in a professional, timely and cost-effective manner, and (ii) promoting studies in the field of alternative dispute resolution.
• Finance and audit: The NDIAC will be required to maintain a fund which will be credited with grants received from the central government, fees collected for its activities, and other sources. The accounts of the NDIAC will be audited and certified by the Comptroller and AuditorGeneral of India.
• Institutional support: The Ordinance specifies that the NDIAC will establish a Chamber of Arbitration which will maintain a permanent panel of arbitrators. Further, the NDIAC may also establish an Arbitration Academy for training arbitrators and conducting research in the area of alternative dispute resolution.
• Benefits
• The benefits of institutionalized arbitration will accrue to Government and its agency and to the parties to a dispute. This shall be to the advantage of the public and the public institutions in terms of quality of expertise and costs incurred and will facilitate India becoming a hub for Institutional Arbitration.
• Objective
• The NDAIC shall be established with an aim to:-
• (a) to bring targeted reforms to develop itself as a flagship institution for conducting international and domestic arbitration
• (b) provide facilities and administrative assistance for conciliation mediation and arbitral proceedings;
• (c) maintain panels of accredited arbitrators, conciliators and mediators both at national and international level or specialists such as surveyors and investigators;
• (d) facilitate conducting of international and domestic arbitrations and conciliation in the most professional manner;
• (e) provide cost effective and timely services for the conduct of arbitrations and conciliations at Domestic and International level;
• (f) promote studies in the field of alternative dispute resolution and related matters, and to promote reforms in the system of settlement of disputes; and
• (g) co-operate with other societies, institutions and organisations, national or international for promoting alternative dispute resolution.

MCQ 4

1. Centralized Public Grievance Redress And Monitoring System (CPGRAMS) comes under Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution
2. It handles RTI matters too.

• Choose correct

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Both

(D) None

• Government of india
• Ministry of personnel, public grievances & pensions
• Department of administrative reforms & public grievances centralized public grievance redress and monitoring system (CPGRAMS)
• Centralized Public Grievance Redress And Monitoring System (CPGRAMS) is an online webenabled system over NICNET developed by NIC, in association with Directorate of Public Grievances (DPG) and Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG). CPGRAMS is the platform based on web technology which primarily aims to enable submission of grievances by the aggrieved citizens from anywhere and anytime (24x7) basis to Ministries/Departments/Organisations who scrutinize and take action for speedy and favorable redress of these grievances. Tracking grievances is also facilitated on this portal through the system generated unique registration number.
• Issues which are not taken up for redress
• Subjudice cases or any matter concerning judgment given by any court.
• Personal and family disputes.
• RTI matters.
• Anything that impacts upon territorial integrity of the country orfriendly relations with other countries.
• Suggestions.

MCQ 5

1. The Central Council regulates homoeopathic education and practice.
2. The Homoeopathy Central Council (Amendment) Ordinance, 2019 was promulgated on March 2, 2019, which establishes this council.

• Choose correct

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Both

(D) None

• The Homoeopathy Central Council (Amendment) Ordinance, 2019 was promulgated on March 2, 2019. It amends the Homoeopathy Central Council Act, 1973 which sets up the Central Council of Homoeopathy. The Central Council regulates homoeopathic education and practice.
• Time period for supersession of the Central Council: The 1973 Act was amended in 2018 to provide for the supersession of the Central Council. The Central Council was required to be reconstituted within one year from the date of its supersession. In the interim period, the central government constituted a Board of Governors, to exercise the powers of the Central Council. The Ordinance amends the Act to increase the time period for supersession of the Central Council from one year to two years.

MCQ 6

1. The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Second Ordinance, 2019 bans triple talaq but retains talaq-e-Biddat in written and electronic form
2. The Ordinance makes declaration of talaq a Non-cognizable offence

• Choose correct

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Both

(D) None

• The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Second Ordinance, 2019 was promulgated on February 21, 2019. Note that two similar Ordinances had been promulgated in September 2018 and January 2019. This Ordinance is effective from the date of the first Ordinance, i.e. September 19, 2018.
• The Ordinance makes all declaration of talaq, including in written or electronic form, to be void (i.e. not enforceable in law) and illegal. It defines talaq as talaq-e-biddat or any other similar form of talaq pronounced by a Muslim man resulting in instant and irrevocable divorce. Talaq-e-biddat refers to the practice under Muslim personal laws where pronouncement of the word ‘talaq’ thrice in one sitting by a Muslim man to his wife results in an instant and irrevocable divorce.
• Offence and penalty: The Ordinance makes declaration of talaq a cognizable offence, attracting up to three years imprisonment with a fine. (A cognizable offence is one for which a police officer may arrest an accused person without warrant.) The offence will be cognizable only if information relating to the offence is given by: (i) the married woman (against whom talaq has been declared), or (ii) any person related to her by blood or marriage.
• The Ordinance provides that the Magistrate may grant bail to the accused. The bail may be granted only after hearing the woman (against whom talaq has been pronounced), and if the Magistrate is satisfied that there are reasonable grounds for granting bail.
• The offence may be compounded by the Magistrate upon the request of the woman (against whom talaq has been declared). Compounding refers to the procedure where the two sides agree to stop legal proceedings, and settle the dispute. The terms and conditions of the compounding of the offence will be determined by the Magistrate.
• Allowance: A Muslim woman against whom talaq has been declared, is entitled to seek subsistence allowance from her husband for herself and for her dependent children. The amount of the allowance will be determined by the Magistrate.
• Custody: A Muslim woman against whom such talaq has been declared, is entitled to seek custody of her minor children. The manner of custody will be determined by the Magistrate.

MCQ 7

• By The National Institutes of Food Technology, Entrepreneurship and Management Bill, 2019 certain institutes of food technology, entrepreneurship, and management which were declared as institutions of national importance.

1. National Institute of Food Technology Entrepreneurship and Management Kundli
2. Indian Institute of Food Processing Technology, Thanjavur
3. FSSAI institute, Delhi

(A) 1 & 2

(B) 2 & 3

(C) All

(D) None

• The National Institutes of Food Technology, Entrepreneurship and Management Bill, 2019 was introduced in Rajya Sabha by the Minister of Food Processing Industries, Ms. Harsimrat Kaur Badal, on February 13, 2019. The Bill declares certain institutes of food technology, entrepreneurship, and management as institutions of national importance.
• These institutes are the National Institute of Food Technology Entrepreneurship and Management Kundli, and the Indian Institute of Food Processing Technology, Thanjavur. The Bill declares these institutes as National Institutes of Food Technology, Entrepreneurship and Management.
• Functions of the institutes: Under the Bill, the functions of the institutes include: (i) providing for instruction, research, and knowledge dissemination in the field of food science and technology, (ii) holding examinations and granting degrees, diplomas, certificates and other academic distinctions or titles, (iii) determining and collecting fees and other charges, and (iv) instituting and making appointments for academic and other posts, except that of the Director.
• Board of Governors: The Bill provides for a Board of Governors, which will be the principal executive body of the institute. The Board will be responsible for the general superintendence, direction, and control of the affairs of the institute. The powers and functions of the Board include: (i) taking administrative policy decisions, (ii) examining and approving annual budget estimates and development plans, (iii) establishing departments, faculties or schools of studies, and initiating courses or programmes of study, and (iv) creating academic, administrative, and other posts, and determining their terms of service and appointment.
• The Board will consist of 16 members including: (i) a Chairperson, who is a distinguished person in the field of food science, technology or management, or other such field, (ii) the Director, Dean, Registrar, and faculty members, (iii) representatives of central and state governments, (iv) representatives of FSSAI and the Indian Council of Agricultural Research, and (v) representatives of the food processing industry.

MCQ 8

• The DNA Technology (Use and Application) Regulation Bill, 2018 concerns with

1. Agriculture tech research
2. Criminal investigation
3. Medical research
4. Trade of endangered species

• Highlights of the Bill
• The Bill regulates the use of DNA technology for establishing the identity of persons in respect of matters listed in a Schedule. These include criminal matters (such as offences under the Indian Penal Code, 1860), and civil matters such as parentage disputes, emigration or immigration, and transplantation of human organs.
• The Bill establishes a National DNA Data Bank and Regional DNA Data Banks. Every Data Bank will maintain the following indices: (i) crime scene index, (ii) suspects’ or undertrials’ index, (iii) offenders’ index, (iv) missing persons’ index, and (v) unknown deceased persons’ index.
• The Bill establishes a DNA Regulatory Board. Every DNA laboratory that analyses a DNA sample to establish the identity of an individual, has to be accredited by the Board.
• Written consent by individuals is required to collect DNA samples from them. Consent is not required for offences with punishment of more than seven years of imprisonment or death.
• The Bill provides for the removal of DNA profiles of suspects on filing of a police report or court order, and of undertrials on the basis of a court order. Profiles in the crime scene and missing persons’ index will be removed on a written request.